ITIL
Foundation v.3 Version 1.1 Part2
QUESTION 102
Vendor:
EXIN
Code: EX0-101
Exam Name: ITIL Foundation v.3
Code: EX0-101
Exam Name: ITIL Foundation v.3
QUESTION 101
Which
of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?
A.
An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five
times the normal time to log it
B.
An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C.
An Incident which has a high impact on the business
D.
An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any
workaround can be found
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 102
Which
of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service
Lifecycle?
A.
Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services,
technology architecture,
processes
or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements of the
organization
B.
Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the
Service Design process and the
service
designs that are produced
C.
Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
D.
Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting
processes
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION
103
Contracts
relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A.
Service Desk
B.
IT Operations Control
C.
Technical Management
D.
Facilities Management
Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 104
An
IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of
services has started to suffer. What
imbalance
does this represent?
A.
Excessive focus on quality
B.
Excessively reactive
C.
Excessively proactive
D.
Excessive focus on cost
Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 105
Which
of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A.
To provide information to users about what services are available and how to
request them
B.
To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the
Service Desk
C.
To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been
requested
D.
To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
106
What
is the definition of an Alert?
A.
An error message to the user of an application
B.
An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to
agreed procedures
C.
A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
D.
A type of Incident
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 107
"Service
Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing
value to customers in the
form
of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which
of the following?
A.
Functions and Processes
B.
Markets and Customers
C.
Applications and Infrastructure
D.
People, products and technology
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 108
Which
process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their
targets?
A.
Business Relationship Management
B.
Continual Service Improvement
C.
Service Level Management
D.
Availability Management
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
109
Which
of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A.
The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business
benefits and goals
B.
A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
C.
The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and
regulating a process, with the objective of
achieving
Best Practice"
D.
The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from
business objectives
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 110
How
is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider
organization?
A.
Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
B.
Showing the business impact of a change
C.
Displaying the relationships between configuration items
D.
To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 111
Which
process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the
performance drops below
acceptable
limits?
A.
Service Level Management
B.
Performance Management
C.
Capacity Management
D.
Event Management
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
112
In
many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service
Desk. It is important that the
Incident
Manager is given the authority to:
A.
Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
B.
Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C.
Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D.
Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
113
Application
Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which
they contribute is?
A.
Whether to buy an application or build it
B.
Should application development be outsourced
C.
Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D.
Where the vendor of an application is located
Answer: A
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QUESTION 114
Which
of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1.
How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2.
What services to offer and to whom?
3.
What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A.
2 only
B.
1 only
C.
All of the above
D.
3 only
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
115
Removing
or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which
process?
A.
Access Management
B.
Incident Management
C.
Request Fulfillment
D.
Change Management
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 116
Which
of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A.
Delivers specific results
B.
A method of structuring an organization
C.
Responds to specific events
D.
It is measurable
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 117
Service
Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of
Service Asset?
A.
Applications and Infrastructure
B.
Services and Infrastructure
C.
Resources and Capabilities
D.
Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
118
Staff
in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of
them know what services
are
offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A.
Extreme internal focus
B.
Extreme focus on cost
C.
Extreme focus on responsiveness
D.
Vendor focused
Answer: A
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QUESTION 119
Which
of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A.
Delivers specific results
B.
Responds to specific events
C.
It is measurable
D.
A method of structuring an organization
Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 120
Which
Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
A.
IT Operations Management
B.
Applications Management
C.
Service Desk
D.
Technical Management
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
121
Which
of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A.
Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.
B.
Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements
C.
Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
D.
Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
Answer: A
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QUESTION 122
Which
of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A.
Software design
B.
Process design
C.
Environment design
D.
Strategy design
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 123
Which
of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A.
Governance
B.
Service Level Management
C.
Capacity Management
D.
Service Strategy
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
124
Which
Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
A.
Applications Management
B.
Service Desk
C.
Technical Management
D.
IT Operations Management
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
125
Who
is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?
A.
The Service Owner
B.
The Continual Service Improvement Manager
C.
The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
D.
The Change Management Process Owner
Answer: A
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QUESTION 126
The
difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level
Agreement (OLA) is that:
A.
An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement
B.
An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support
needed to deliver the service
C.
An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level Targets
D.
An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer
Answer: A
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QUESTION
127
Which
of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?
A.
To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B.
To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
C.
To transform Service Management into a strategic asset
D.
To underscore the importance of services in the global economy
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
128
Which
of the following best describes a Service Request?
A.
Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based
interface
B.
A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change
C.
Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change
Manager without a CAB
meeting
D.
Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Service
Request (Service Operation) A request from a User for information or advice, or
for a Standard Change
or
for Access to an IT Service. For example to reset a password, or to provide
standard IT Services for a new
User.
Service Requests are usually handled by a Service Desk, and do not require an
RFC to be submitted.
See
also Request Fulfillment.
http://www.dumps.01world.in
QUESTION 129
Which
of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all
that apply
A.
To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
B.
To automatically detect service affecting Events
C.
The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
130
What
are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?
A.
Informational, Scheduled, Normal
B.
Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency
C.
Informational, Warning, Exception
D.
Warning, Reactive, Proactive
Answer: C
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QUESTION
131
Which
processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A.
Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B.
Supplier Management and Demand Management
C.
Demand Management and Service Level Management
D.
Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 132
Which
process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A.
Change Management
B.
Service Portfolio Management
C.
Supplier Management
D.
Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
133
Understanding
what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part
of the Service
Lifecycle?
A.
Service Strategy
B.
Continual Service Improvement
C.
Service Operation
D.
Service Design
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:'
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QUESTION
134
Which
process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A.
Demand Management
B.
Incident Management
C.
Release and Deployment Management
D.
Request Fulfillment
Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 135
Within
Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A.
Measurement, methods and metrics
B.
Service Design Package
C.
Service Portfolio Design
D.
Process definitions
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
136
Which
of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
A.
Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
B.
Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C.
Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer
satisfaction
D.
Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business
users
Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
137
Which
of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are
CORRECT?
1.
All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2.
Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both of the above
D.
None of the above
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 138
Access
Management is closely related to which other processes?
A.
Availability Management only
B.
Information Security Management and 3rd line support
C.
Information Security Management and Availability Management
D.
Information Security Management only
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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Explanation:
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QUESTION
139
Which
process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?
A.
Service Level Management
B.
Problem Management
C.
Change Management
D.
Event Management
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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Explanation:
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QUESTION
140
Which
is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level
Agreement(SLA)?
A.
Technology, Customer, User
B.
Corporate, Customer, Service
C.
Corporate, Customer, Technology
D.
Service, User, IT
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 141
Which
of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement
Model?
A.
Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the
solution; Continually Improve
B.
Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How
do we keep the
momentum
going?
C.
Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes;
Implement the plan; Check the
plan
has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D.
What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get
there?; Did we get
there?;
How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
142
Match
the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages
1.
Monitor, Measure and Review
2.
Continual Improvement
3.
Implement Initiatives
4.
Plan for Improvement
A.
1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act
B.
3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
C.
4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
D.
2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
Answer: C
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QUESTION
143
A
Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before
a workaround has been
found.
Is this a valid approach?
A.
Yes
B.
No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C.
No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been
implemented
D.
No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 144
Which
of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognized in the Service Operation
volume of ITIL?
A.
Local
B.
Centralized
C.
Holistic
D.
Virtual
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
145
Customer
perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A.
The value of a service
B.
Customer satisfaction
C.
Total cost of ownership
D.
Key performance indicators
Answer: A
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
146
Service
Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four
P's" include Partners, People,
Processes
and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional
"P"?
A.
Profit
B.
Preparation
C.
Products
D.
Potential
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 147
Which
stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST
described as 'Understand
and
agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the
principles defined in the
vision?
A.
Where are we now?
B.
Where do we want to be?
C.
How do we get there?
D.
Did we get there?
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
148
Which
of the following does the Availability Management process include?
1.
Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
2.
Monitoring and reporting actual availability
3.
Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed
their availability goals
A.
1 only
B.
All of the above
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
1 and 3 only
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
149
In
which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?
A.
An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not
impacted any users
B.
An Incident is passed to second-level support
C.
A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of
recurring Incidents
D.
Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in
implementing it
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION 150
Understanding
the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the
degree of compliance
with
governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value
through which part of the
service
lifecycle?
A.
Service Transition
B.
Risk Management
C.
IT Service Continuity Management
D.
Availability Management
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 151
Which
of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security
Management?
A.
The IT Executive
B.
The ISO27001 Standard
C.
The Business
D.
The Service Level Manager
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
152
Which
of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management
process
A.
A change to a contract with a supplier
B.
A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity
purposes
C.
An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident
D.
A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 153
Hierarchic
escalation is best described as?
A.
Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident
B.
Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C.
Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain
customer satisfaction
D.
Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level
Agreement
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 154
Which
of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?
A.
To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents
B.
To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle
C.
To restore service to a user
D.
To eliminate recurring Incidents
Answer: C
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
155
There
are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and
performance of processes.
Which
of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
1.
Progress
2.
Effectiveness
3.
Efficiency
4.
?
A.
Cost
B.
Conformance
C.
Compliance
D.
Capacity
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 156
The
information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a
new service is called:
A.
A Service Level Package
B.
A Service Transition Package
C.
A Service Design Package
D.
A New Service Package
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 157
Which
of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A.
Definitive Media Library (DML)
B.
Configuration Management System (CMS)
C.
Statement of Requirements (SOR)
D.
Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
Answer: B
Section: (none)
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QUESTION
158
You
are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service
Design disciplines. Which
statement
would NOT be part of the value proposition?
A.
Reduced Total Cost of Ownership
B.
Improved quality of service
C.
Improved Service alignment with business goals
D.
Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 159
Which
of these are objectives of Service Level Management
1:
Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided
2:
Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3:
Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4:
Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in
A.
1, 2 and 3 only
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1, 2 and 4 only
D.
All of the above
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 160
What
is the objective of Access Management?
A.
To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings
B.
To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C.
To manage access to the Service Desk
D.
To manage the right to use a service or group of services
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION
161
Which
of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A.
Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B.
They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C.
They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D.
They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common
language
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION 162
Which
of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
1.
Known Error Data
2.
Change Schedules
3.
Service Knowledge Management System
4.
The output from monitoring tools
A.
1,2 and 3 only
B.
1,2 and4 only
C.
2,3 and 4 only
D.
All of the above
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 163
Which
of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and
Configuration
Management?
A.
Describes the topography of the hardware
B.
Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the
services
C.
Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D.
Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
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QUESTION
164
"Planning
and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production"
is a purpose of which part
of
the Service Lifecycle?
A.
Service Operation
B.
Service Strategy
C.
Service Transition
D.
Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 165
Which
of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management
is/are CORRECT?
1.
A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the
same time
2.
Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between
information availability and the right
level
of control
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both of the above
D.
Neither of the above
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 166
Which
of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue
is the MOST CORRECT?
A.
The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or
being prepared for deployment;
the
Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being
considered for future development
B.
The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio
only has information about
services
which are being considered for future development
C.
The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue
only has information about
services
which are live, or being prepared for deployment
D.
Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
167
Data
used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:
A.
A configuration management database (CMDB)
B.
A capacity database (CDB)
C.
A configuration management system (CMS)
D.
A capacity management information system (CMIS)
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 168
A
consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:
1.
To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2.
It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
Which
of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both of the above
D.
Neither of the above
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 169
Availability
Management is responsible for availability of the:
A.
Services and Components
B.
Services and Business Processes
C.
Components and Business Processes
D.
Services, Components and Business Processes
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
170
Which
part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out
the activities and processes
required
to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and
customers?
A.
Continual Service Improvement
B.
Service Transition
C.
Service Design
D.
Service Operation
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 171
Which
statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?
A.
The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change
B.
Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
C.
The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call
a full CAB
D.
The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 172
Which
of the following statements is INCORRECT?
The
Service Owner:
A.
Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they
own
B.
Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting
the service they own
C.
Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support
the service they own
D.
Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
173
Which
of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?
A.
Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not
B.
Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
C.
Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not
D.
Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 174
The
consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which
part of the Service
Lifecycle?
A.
Continual Service Improvement
B.
Service Strategy
C.
Service Design
D.
Service Transition
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 175
What
guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
A.
Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
B.
Reporting intervals should be set by the Service Provider
C.
Reports should be produced weekly
D.
Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
176
Which
role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT
Infrastructure?
A.
Service Level Management
B.
IT Operations Management
C.
Capacity Management
D.
Incident Management
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
177
Which
of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?
A.
To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B.
Provides the rights for users to be able of services
C.
To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D.
To detect security events and make sense of them
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 178
Identity
and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following
processes?
A.
Access Management
B.
Facilities Management
C.
Event Management
D.
Demand Management
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
179
A
risk is:
A.
Something that won't happen
B.
Something that will happen
C.
Something that has happened
D.
Something that might happen
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 180
What
are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and
organization types known as?
A.
The Service Strategy and Service Transition books
B.
The ITIL Complementary Guidance
C.
The Service Support and Service Delivery books
D.
Pocket Guides
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 181
A
Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which
of the following would be expected of
them?
A.
Tell others about the progress of an activity
B.
Perform an activity
C.
Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
D.
Manage an activity
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
182
Which
of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency,
priority and impact?
A.
Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other
B.
Urgency should be based on impact and priority
C.
Impact should be based on urgency and priority
D.
Priority should be based on impact and urgency
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 183
Which
of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment
Management?
A.
To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by
Service Design and that will
accomplish
the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B.
To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a
set of related assets and
service
components that are compatible with each other
C.
To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed,
tested, verified and/or
uninstalled
or backed out if appropriate
D.
To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed
service
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 184
Which
of the following are goals of Service Operation?
1.
To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver
and manage services at agreed
levels
to the business
2.
The successful release of services into the live environment
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both of the above
D.
Neither of the above
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
185
Which
statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?
A.
They must contain legal wording because of their importance
B.
There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer
C.
The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
D.
Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 186
Which
of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between
Configuration Items (CIs)?
1)
Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
2)
Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3)
Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4)
Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
A.
1 and 2 only
B.
All of the above
C.
1, 2 and 4 only
D.
1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 187
What
does a service always deliver to customers?
A.
Applications
B.
Infrastructure
C.
Value
D.
Resources
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
188
Which
of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service
Transition phase of the
lifecycle?
1.
Data mining and workflow tools
2.
Measurement and reporting systems
3.
Release and deployment technology
4.
Process Design
A.
2, 3 and 4 only
B.
1, 3 and 4 only
C.
1, 2 and 3 only
D.
All of the above
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
189
Which
of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A.
Processes and functions
B.
Maturity and cost
C.
The end to end service
D.
Infrastructure availability
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 190
Which
of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)?
A.
An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that
they use
B.
An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
C.
An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
D.
An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
191
Which
of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?
1.
A process is always organized around a set of objectives
2.
A process should be documented
A.
1 only
B.
2 only
C.
Both of the above
D.
Neither of the above
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
192
Which
role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
A.
The Service Level Manager
B.
The Business Relationship Manager
C.
The Service Owner
D.
The Service Continuity Manager
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 193
Which
of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be
proactive as opposed to
reactive?
1)
Risk assessment
2)
Testing of resilience mechanisms
3)
Monitoring of component availability
A.
All of the above
B.
1 and 2 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
2 and 3 only
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
194
Which
of the following is the BEST description of a Centralized Service Desk?
A.
The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it
serves
B.
The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that
multiple desk locations are in
one
place
C.
The desk provides 24 hour global support
D.
There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
195
What
would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1.
What is the vision?
2.
Where are we now?
3.
Where do we want to be?
4.
How do we get there?
5.
Did we get there?
6.
?
A.
What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.
How much did it cost?
C.
How do we keep the momentum going?
D.
What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www.dumps.01world.in
QUESTION 196
Which
stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the
change is
unsuccessful?
A.
Remediation Planning
B.
Categorization
C.
Prioritization
D.
Review and Close
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
197
Which
of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A.
To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B.
To provide training and certification in project management
C.
To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D.
To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
198
Which
of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?
A.
Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur
B.
Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs
C.
First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
D.
Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and
activities
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 199
Which
of these is the BEST description of a release unit?
A.
The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released
together
B.
The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently
changed
C.
The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular
release
D.
A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment
Management process 71
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION
200
Which
of the following BEST describes Technical Management?
A.
A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems
B.
A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in
the delivery of service to
customers
C.
Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function
D.
A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide
technical expertise and overal
management
of the IT Infrastructure
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: